Guaranteed High Marks with Updated & Real SK0-005 Dumps pdf Free Updates [Q95-Q117]

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Guaranteed High Marks with Updated & Real SK0-005 Dumps pdf Free Updates

PASS RATE CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certified Exam DUMP


The CompTIA SK0-005 exam is aimed at IT professionals who work in the server arena, including server managers, system administrators, and support professionals. The certification validates the skills necessary to manage servers, monitor network security, and manage data storage. The exam tests the candidates' ability to troubleshoot network problems and maintain network uptime by troubleshooting and repairing servers, and ensuring that data storage is available and secure.

 

NEW QUESTION # 95
A server administrator is completing an OS installation for a new server. The administrator patches the server with the latest vendor-suggested software, configures DHCP, and verifies all network cables are properly connected in the IDF, but there is no network connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of connectivity?

  • A. The OS version is not compatible with the network switch vendor.
  • B. The VLAN Is improperly configured.
  • C. The HIDS is preventing the connection.
  • D. The DNS configuration Is invalid.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If the server administrator patches the server with the latest vendor-suggested software, configures DHCP, and verifies all network cables are properly connected in the IDF, but there is no network connectivity, then the most likely reason for the lack of connectivity is that the VLAN is improperly configured. A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain and can communicate with each other without routing. If the server is assigned to a different VLAN than the DHCP server or the default gateway, it will not be able to obtain an IP address or reach other network devices. The DNS configuration is not relevant for network connectivity, as DNS only resolves names to IP addresses. The OS version is not likely to be incompatible with the network switch vendor, as most network switches use standard protocols and interfaces. The HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is not likely to prevent the connection, as HIDS only monitors and alerts on suspicious activities on the host. Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/ https://www.howtogeek.com/164981/how-to-use-nslookup-to-check-domain-name-information-in-microsoft-windows/ https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-an-intrusion-detection-system-ids-and-how-does-it-work/


NEW QUESTION # 96
A server administrator is gathering full datacenter inventory of all the server hardware to submit to the IT manager for next year's budget for a technology refresh project.
Which of the following life-cycle management stages is this?

  • A. Procurement
  • B. Disposal
  • C. Usage
  • D. End-of-life

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 97
After configuring IP networking on a newly commissioned server, a server administrator installs a straight- through network cable from the patch panel to the switch. The administrator then returns to the server to test network connectivity using the ping command. The partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands are displayed below:

The administrator returns to the switch and notices an amber link light on the port where the server is connected. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of network connectivity?

  • A. Network port security
  • B. An improper VLAN configuration
  • C. A misconfigured NIC on the server
  • D. A misconfigured DHCP server

Answer: C

Explanation:
A misconfigured NIC on the server is the most likely reason for the lack of network connectivity. The output of the ping command shows that the server is unable to reach its default gateway (10.0.0.1) or any other IP address on the network. The output of the ipconfig command shows that the server has a valid IP address (10.0.0.10) and subnet mask (255.255.255.0) but no default gateway configured. This indicates that there is a problem with the NIC settings on the server, such as an incorrect IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc. A misconfigured NIC can also cause an amber link light on the switch port, which indicates a speed or duplex mismatch between the NIC and the switch.


NEW QUESTION # 98
Joe, a technician, wants to configure a server's networking information so he will no longer need to maintain a list of names and IP addresses in a file on the server. Which of the following will work BEST to accomplish this task?

  • A. DNS
  • B. Hosts file
  • C. DHCP
  • D. VLAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
To replace the host zone file with a list of ip address and host name.


NEW QUESTION # 99
A server administrator is testing a disaster recovery plan. The test involves creating a downtime scenario and taking the necessary steps.
Which of the following testing methods is the administrator MOST likely performing?

  • A. Tabletop
  • B. Live failover
  • C. Backup recovery
  • D. Simulated

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following should an administrator use to transfer log files from a Linux server to a Windows workstation?

  • A. SCP
  • B. Robocopy
  • C. XCOPY
  • D. Telnet

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 101
A server administrator is deploying a new server that has two hard drives on which to install the OS. Which of the following RAID configurations should be used to provide redundancy for the OS?

  • A. RAID 5
  • B. RAID 6
  • C. RAID 0
  • D. RAID 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
RAID 1 (mirroring) is a RAID configuration that should be used to provide redundancy for the OS on a server that has two hard drives on which to install the OS. RAID 1 (mirroring) is a configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 0 (striping) is a configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 5 (striping with parity) is a configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive's worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. RAID 6 (striping with double parity) is a configuration that stripes data across four or more drives with double parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by two drives' worth of space. RAID 6 can tolerate two drive failures without data loss, but not three or more. Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/


NEW QUESTION # 102
An administrator is given two hard drives and asked to build a redundant storage solution. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator use?

  • A. RAID 4
  • B. RAID 5
  • C. RAID 0
  • D. RAID 1

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?

  • A. TACACS
  • B. SSO
  • C. MFA
  • D. LDAP

Answer: B

Explanation:
The term that is most likely part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications is SSO. SSO (Single Sign-On) is a way for users to be authenticated for multiple applications and services at once. With SSO, a user signs in at a single login screen and can then use a number of apps without having to enter their credentials again. SSO improves user experience and security by reducing password fatigue and phishing risks. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a protocol that enables SSO by providing a standardized way to exchange authentication and authorization data between an identity provider (IdP) and a service provider (SP). SAML uses XML-based messages called assertions to communicate user identity and attributes between parties.
Reference:
https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works


NEW QUESTION # 104
Users have noticed a server is performing below Baseline expectations. While diagnosing me server, an administrator discovers disk drive performance has degraded. The administrator checks the diagnostics on the RAID controller and sees the battery on me controller has gone bad. Which of the following is causing the poor performance on the RAID array?

  • A. The drive array is corrupt.
  • B. The controller has lost its configuration.
  • C. The controller cannot use all the available channels.
  • D. The controller has disabled the write cache.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The write cache is a feature of some RAID controllers that allows them to temporarily store data in a fast memory buffer before writing it to the disk drives. This improves the performance and efficiency of write operations, especially for random and small writes. However, if the battery on the controller goes bad, the controller may disable the write cache to prevent data loss in case of a power failure. This can degrade the disk drive performance significantly, as every write operation will have to wait for the disk drives to complete. Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-raid-controller-battery-learn-cycle https://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-raid-controller-write-cache/


NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following must a server administrator do to ensure data on the SAN is not compromised if it is leaked?

  • A. Encrypt all the network traffic
  • B. Encrypt the data that is leaving the SAN
  • C. Encrypt the data at rest
  • D. Encrypt the host servers

Answer: C

Explanation:
The question states "data on the SAN", so if you encrypt data at rest, this will prevent data compromised.


NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of me following BEST describes a disaster recovery site with a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on In the event of a disaster?

  • A. Cold
  • B. Warm
  • C. Hot
  • D. Cloud

Answer: B

Explanation:
A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on in the event of a disaster. A warm site is a compromise between a hot site and a cold site. A warm site has some equipment and data ready, but requires some configuration and restoration before resuming operations. A warm site is usually located in a different geographic area than the primary site and has redundant power, cooling, network, and security systems. A warm site is suitable for organizations that can tolerate some downtime and data loss in case of a disaster. A cloud site is a type of disaster recovery site that uses cloud-based resources and platforms to store backups and restore data and applications after a disaster. A cold site is a type of disaster recovery site that has only basic infrastructure and space available, but requires significant setup and installation before resuming operations. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has all the equipment and data ready to resume operations as soon as possible after a disaster. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11172/hot-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11173/warm-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11174/cold-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/29836/cloud-recovery


NEW QUESTION # 107
A systems administrator is investigating a server with a RAID array that will not boot into the OS. The administrator notices all the hard drives are reporting to be offline. The administrator checks the RAID controller and verifies the configuration is correct. The administrator then replaces one of the drives with a known-good drive, but it appears to be unavailable as well. Next, the administrator takes a drive out of the server and places it in a spare server, and the drive is available and functional. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

  • A. The kernel is corrupt.
  • B. The backplane has failed.
  • C. Resources are misallocated.
  • D. The drives need to be reseated.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The backplane is a circuit board that connects multiple hard drives to a RAID controller and provides power and data transfer between them. If the backplane has failed, it may cause all the hard drives to be offline and prevent the server from booting into the OS. The fact that replacing one of the drives with a known-good drive did not work, and that taking a drive out of the server and placing it in a spare server made it functional, suggests that the problem is not with the drives themselves but with the backplane. A corrupt kernel (A) would not affect the status of the hard drives, as it is a software component of the OS. Resource misallocation (B) would not cause all the hard drives to be offline, as it is a configuration issue that affects how resources are assigned to processes or applications. Reseating the drives (D) would not help, as it would not fix a faulty backplane. Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000130114/how-to-troubleshoot-a-faulty-backplane


NEW QUESTION # 108
After configuring a server, a technician is unable to access websites by URL but can access websites by typing in an IP address. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

  • A. There is a misconfigured firewall.
  • B. The DNS is misconfigured.
  • C. The DHCP is not enabled on the server.
  • D. There is an incorrect gateway configuration.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 109
A company has implemented a requirement to encrypt all the hard drives on its servers as part of a data loss prevention strategy. Which of the following should the company also perform as a data loss prevention method?

  • A. Block the servers from using an encrypted USB
  • B. Implement port security on the switches
  • C. Encrypt all network traffic
  • D. Implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 110
A server administrator is assigning an internally routable IPv6 unique local address to servers in a datacenter. Which of the following network addresses should the administrator assign to a server?

  • A. 2901:4868:4800::8844
  • B. fd00:1348:4ef0:1ab9::1fd4
  • C. 10.40.251.33
  • D. 192.168.0.10

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 111
Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration. Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server. The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working. Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue? (Choose two.)

  • A. The server has a malfunctioning LED panel
  • B. The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers
  • C. The server requires OS updates
  • D. The server has a faulty power supply
  • E. The server has a CMOS battery failure
  • F. The servers do not have NTP configured

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
The server has a CMOS battery failure and the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers. The CMOS battery is a small battery on the motherboard that powers the BIOS settings and keeps track of the date and time when the server is powered off. If the CMOS battery fails, the server will lose its configuration and display an incorrect date and time when it is powered on. This can cause access issues for users and applications that rely on accurate time stamps. The time synchronization service is a service that synchronizes the system clock with a reliable external time source, such as a network time protocol (NTP) server. If the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers, they will not be able to update their clocks automatically and may drift out of sync with each other and with the network. This can also cause access issues for users and applications that require consistent and accurate time across the network.


NEW QUESTION # 112
An administrator is wiring some Cat 5 cable into a serial cable. Which of the following wiring types should the administrator use?

  • A. EIA 568A on both ends
  • B. Straight-through
  • C. Rollover
  • D. Crossover

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 113
An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter. Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server's console?

  • A. VNC
  • B. IP KVM
  • C. SSH
  • D. RDP
  • E. A crash cart

Answer: B

Explanation:
The administrator should use an IP KVM to access the server's console remotely for bare-metal maintenance. An IP KVM stands for Internet Protocol Keyboard Video Mouse, which is a device that allows remote control of a server's keyboard, video, and mouse over a network connection, such as LAN or Internet. An IP KVM enables an administrator to perform tasks such as BIOS configuration, boot sequence selection, operating system installation, etc., without being physically present at the server location.
The other options are not suitable for bare-metal maintenance because they require either physical access to the server (a crash cart) or an operating system running on the server (VNC, RDP, SSH). A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, keyboard, mouse, and cables that can be plugged into a server for direct access to its console. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing, which is a software that allows remote desktop sharing and control over a network connection using a graphical user interface (GUI). RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol, which is a protocol that allows remote desktop access and control over a network connection using a GUI or command-line interface (CLI). SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI.


NEW QUESTION # 114
A server technician notices a server is very low on disk space. Upon inspecting the disk utilization, the technician discovers server logs are taxing up a large amount of space. There is no central log server. Which of the following would help free up disk space?

  • A. Log analysis
  • B. Log shipping
  • C. Log alerting
  • D. Log rotation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Log rotation is a process that periodically renames, compresses, and deletes old log files to free up disk space and keep log files manageable. Log rotation can be configured using tools such as logrotate or cron on Linux systems, or using Windows Task Scheduler or PowerShell scripts on Windows systems. Log rotation can also help with log analysis and troubleshooting by making it easier to find relevant information in smaller and more recent log files. Reference: https://www.mezmo.com/learn-log-management/what-is-log-rotation-how-does-it-work https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/logman


NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following is the MOST secure method to access servers located in remote branch offices?

  • A. Use a password complexity policy
  • B. Use a role-based access policy
  • C. Use an MFA out-of-band solution
  • D. Use a Telnet connection

Answer: C

Explanation:
MFA for the entire network and also to access a remote server.
Some examples of out-of-band authentication (when paired with a typical online login) include:
- Push notifications sent to a mobile device
- QR codes with encrypted transaction data
- Biometric readers for fingerprint scans or facial recognition
- Phone calls for voice authentication


NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?

  • A. Run a restore test
  • B. Clone the configuration
  • C. Check the media integrity
  • D. Overwrite the backups

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 117
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The CompTIA SK0-005 certification exam is a globally recognized certification that is highly valued by employers. It is an industry-standard certification that demonstrates the candidate's expertise in server administration. The certification is vendor-neutral, which means it is not tied to any specific hardware or software vendor. This makes it an ideal certification for IT professionals who work with different types of servers and vendors.


What are the Key Features of the CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam

This exam will validate the skills and knowledge of the professionals. The candidate should have the basic knowledge of designing, implementing and troubleshooting the virtualization technologies.

CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam has following key features:

  • Configure administrative access to servers using industry best practices in a data center environment

  • The CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam will validate your ability to perform these tasks. CompTIA SK0-005 exam dumps will enhance your abilities.

  • The CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam is a validating test for server administrators working in physical as well as virtualized environments. It will validate the knowledge and technical skills of the professionals to design, implement, configure, manage and maintain the data center virtualization solutions.

  • Design and implement network connectivity in a data center environment

  • Install and configure server hardware components based on requirements in a data center environment

 

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